CBSE Sample Papers For Class 8 Social Science Mock Paper 1

Q1. Identify the name of the person with the help of the following information:

•    “Freedom is my birth right and I shall have it!

•     He criticized the Moderates for their “politics of prayers”.

•     He emphasized the importance of self-reliance.

Opt:

​Bal Gangadhar Tilak​

​Bipin Chandra Pal.​

​Lala Lajpat Rai​

​Mahatma Gandhi​

Ans: ​Bal Gangadhar Tilak​

Q2. Consider the statements with respect to Scottish economist and political philosopher James Mill and choose the correct option/s:
I. James Mill divided Indian history into two periods.
II. The periodisation of history by James Mill was widely accepted.
III. According to him, Hindu and Muslim despots ruled India before the advent of British.
IV. Mill believed that British were required for the modernization of Indian society.

Opt:

Only I and II.

Only II and IV.

Only II, III and IV.

Only I, III and IV.

Ans: Only II, III and IV.

Q3.

Which of the following tribes is not found in the state shown in the map?

Opt:

Baigas

Banjara

Gonds

Bhils

Ans: Bhils

Q4. Identify the correct option with the help of following clues:

1. Fine Muslin on which decorative motifs are woven on the loom.
   
2. The major centres of weaving was Decca anfd Lucknow.

Opt:

Patola

Bandanna

Chintz

Jamdani

Ans: Jamdani

Q5. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.

Assertion:  Many people lost their zamindari due to the Permanent Settlement Act.

Reasoning: The Permanent Settlement Act fixed high revenue to pay.

Opt: Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

A is true but R is false.

A is false but R is true.

Ans: Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Q6. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.

Assertion (A)- Womens participation, according to Indian nationalists, gave the national movement an enormous force.

Reasoning (R)- Participating in the liberation movement allowed women to leave their homes and achieve equality with men.

Opt:

​Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.​

​Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.​

​A is true but R is false.​

​A is false but R is true.​

Ans: Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.​

Q7. Discuss the social and religious condition of untouchables in India after 63 years of independence.

Ans: Even after 63 years of independence deep divisions in the society persist.
1. Despite the constitutional guarantees, the untouchables are now described as Dalits and face violence and discrimination.
2. In many regions, they don’t have access to water sources, temples, parks, and other public places.
3. Moreover, despite the secular ideals, there have been clashes between different caste groups in many states.

Q8. What were the measures of caution that the Company practiced?

Ans: The Company also realized through time that it needed to proceed cautiously. As an unfamiliar power, it ought to pacify people who had earlier conquered the countryside and held positions of power and status. Those in positions of local power had to be kept in check, but they could not be abolished.

Q9. What did William Adam observe about the flexible method of the pathshalas?

Ans: Adam observed that this adaptable method was ideal for the needs of the area. Classes were not carried, for instance, during harvest season, when many rural children were working in the fields. When the crops had been cut and reserved, the pathshala continued. This meant that even peasant children could go to school.

Q10. Outline the widow remarriage reform movement in India.

Ans: The widows in India had to suffer many atrocities like sati (funeral pyre burning) and ostracism. In the nineteenth century, many reformers across India began to work towards the cause of widow remarriage. These developments are outlined as follows:
1. Raja Rammohun Roy pointed out that the ancient texts did not give sanction to sati (widow burning).
2. Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar cited ancient texts to prove that widows were allowed to remarry.
3. In the Madras Presidency, Veerasalingam Pantulu formed an association for widow remarriage.
4. Young intellectuals and reformers in Bombay pledged themselves to the cause of widow remarriage.
5. Swami Dayanand’s Arya Samaj provided its support to the cause of widow remarriage.

Q11. An era of oppressive foreign rule in Odisha paved the way for a serious armed uprising in 1817.
1) What was the settlement made between the British and the throne of Khurda? (3 marks)
2) What did the British do after capturing Khurda? (2 marks)

Ans: 1) Khurda, a kingdom in Odisha, was a well-off state under Raja Birakishore Dev. He had signed off a huge part of his land and ceded the superintendence of the Jagannath temple to the Marathas. Later when the Anglo-Maratha conflict started to take root, the king’s son Mukunda Dev II saw this as a great opportunity to take back what was duly his. So, they entered into negotiation with the British.
2) After the negotiations between Khurda and the British, finally, the British occupied Odisha. They changed their sides and did not give back to Khurda what they had agreed upon. Mukunda Dev II got only the superintendent rights of the Jagannath temple.

Q12. By the late nineteenth century, however, the craft of iron smelting was in decline.
1) What measures did the British take that led to the decline of iron smelting? (3 marks)
2) What was another competition that locals faced after the new laws? (2 marks)

Ans: 1) British government had formulated new forest laws, which banned the entry of people into the forests that made it tougher for the local artisans and craftspersons to find wood for charcoal and iron ore for their smelting. At some places, entry was kept partially open for a specific amount that was to be paid, but even that amount was too high for the people to pay. This led to the decline of the iron smelting industry in India.
2) Due to the forest laws, rules and taxes that were made to be paid, local artisans and smelters eventually lost their jobs. But it was the import of iron from Britain, which, as a new competition, forced the locals to abandon their traditional roles as iron smelters.

Q13. Which of the following gases leaked from the pesticide factory of Union Carbide in Bhopal in 1984?
1. Methyl Isocyanate
2. Ethanolic Potassium Hydroxide
3. Hydrogen Cyanide
4. Alkyl Iodide

Opt:

1 and 3 only

3 and 4 only

1, 2 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4 only

Ans: 1 and 3 only

Q14. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of farming in India?
1. Small size of farms
2. Cultivation of at least two crops in a year
3. Traditional method of farming
4. Soil testing at regular interval
5. Farmers work like a businessperson

Opt:

1, 2 and 3 only

3,4 and 5 only

2,3 and 4 only

2, 3 and 5 only

Ans: 1, 2 and 3 only

Q15. Which of the following is/are NOT the correct stage of making pig iron in the iron and steel industry?
1. Putting the raw material into the blast furnace
2. Smelting of iron ore
3. Refining of iron ore
4. Moulding of iron
5. Putting the moulded iron into the blast furnace

Opt:

3 only

5 only

1 and 2

4 and 5 only

Ans: 5 only

Q16. Which of the following regions are not sparsely populated?

1. North-eastern North America
2. High latitude areas
3. Tropical deserts
4. High mountains
5. Areas which have monsoon climate

Opt:

1 and 5 only

2, 3 and 4 only

2, 4 and 5 only

2, 3, 4 and 5 only

Ans: 1 and 5 only

Q17. Match the items in List-I with those in the List-II and select the correct answer from the given codes:

Opt:

a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3

a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1

a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2

a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1

Ans: a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2

Q18. Which of the following correctly explains the term human capital formation?

Opt:

It is about improving the quality of people’s skills.

It is about making people rich.

It is about the increase in the human population.

It is about the exhaustion of more resources by people.

Ans: It is about improving the quality of people’s skills.

Q19. Why is jute known as the “Golden Fibre”?

Ans:

• Jute is known as the “Golden Fibre” because of its colour, which is shiny golden.
• Jute is also a cash crop, which brings great profit to the economy.
• India is the leading producer of jute globally, which contributes significantly to its economy.

Q20. What is human resource? How is it different from human-made resources?

Ans: Human Resources:

• Human resource refer to the number or quantity and mental and physical abilities of the people.
• There are different views and reasons for considering humans as a resource, but the general factor that makes humans a resource is skills. The skills of humans help in transferring physical material into a valuable resource.

Difference between human resources and human-made resources:

• Human-made resources are useful things produced by humans from natural resources, whereas human resources refer to the usefulness of humans themselves.

Q21. When and how did the Chernobyl disaster occur?

Ans:

• The Chernobyl disaster, considered as the world’s worst industrial disaster, occurred in Bhopal on 3rd December 1984 around 00:30 am.
• Methyl Isocyanate Gas, Hydrogen Cyanide, and other reaction products leaked due to a technological failure.
• These highly poisonous gases escaped from the Union Carbide pesticide factory which led to the death of about 4000 people and adversly affected the health of lakhs of people.

Q22. Suggest some measures to conserve natural vegetation and wildlife.

Ans: There are various measures for the conservation of natural vegetation and wildlife. Some of them are as follows:
1. Awareness programmes like social forestry and Vanamohatasava have been started to encourage the sense of protection at the regional and community level.
2. National parks, wildlife sanctuaries, biosphere reserves are setup to protect our natural vegetation and wildlife.
3. Various inlets, lakes and water bodies are put in the red category to protect marine life.
4. Various international institutions like CITES (The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora)  and PETA are established to protect various animal species, birds and natural vegetation.

Q23. Suggest any three measures to stop soil erosion.

Ans: Conservative measures for soil erosion are:
1. Terrace farming are made on the steep slopes to grow crops.
2. Shelter belts means making shelter of tree along the side of farm land or open land.
3. Contour ploughing means ploughing along the contours over hill.
4. Rock dam are made by building a wall of stones to stop water flow over the hill.
5. Afforestation is the best practice to reduce the soil erosion.

Q24. Write a short note on the functioning of tidal barrages.

Ans:

1. A large dam called a barrage is constructed across tidal rivers, bays, and estuaries.
2. During high tide, the sluice gates open to let the water fill the tidal lagoon and close to trap the water.
3. During low tide, the gates are opened to release the water.
4. Turbines are placed to harness the movement of the water.
5. A two-way tidal power system is created, in which the turbines can harness energy from both incoming and outgoing tides.

Q25. Read the information given below and identify the Fundamental Right that is being described here:
Recognizes the right to water as a Right to Life.

The goal of this Fundamental right is to ensure universal access to water.

Opt:

​Article 25​

​Article 21​

​Article 22​

​Article 32​

Ans: Article 21​

Q26. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.

Assertion: The Constitution aims to abolish child labourers.

Reasoning: Through its provisions, the Constitution prohibits children from working in factories or hazardous places.

Opt:

​Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.​

​Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.​

​A is true but R is false.​

​A is false but R is true.​

Ans: Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.​

Q27. Consider the following statements about the courts in India and choose the right options:
I. Only the Supreme Court has the power of judicial review.
II. The Constitution mandates at least two High Courts in each state.
III. The District Courts are subordinate to the High Courts.
IV. A group of High Courts can in unison be able to overturn the decision of the Supreme Court.

Opt:

I and II

III only

I, II and IV

I, III and IV

Ans: III only

Q28. Identify the aspect of judiciary that is described in the following information:
• The appointments to the judiciary have little to no involvement from any of the branches of the government.
• The process of removal of a judge is exhaustive and difficult.

Opt:

Judicial Review

Appellate jurisdiction

Independence of judiciary

Dispute resolution

Ans: Independence of judiciary

Q29. Which one of the following terms is  NOT related to the word ‘Marginalisation’?​

Opt:

​Exclusion​

​Prejudice​

​Powerlessness​

​Substantial​

Ans: Substantial​

Q30. Identify what is described in the following information:
• Recognition of rights for the forest dwelling populace.
• Meant to undo the historical injustices upon them.

Opt:

​Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006. ​

​Article 15​

​Employment of Manual Scavengers and Construction of Dry Latrines (Prohibition) Act. ​

​The Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 ​

Ans: Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006. ​

Q31. State the main objectives of criminal justice system.

Ans:

The main objectives of the criminal justice system can be categorized as follows:
a. Prevent the occurrence of crime.
b. Punish the criminals.
c. Rehabilitate the criminals.
d. Compensate the victims as far as possible.
e. Maintain law and order in the society.
f.  Deter the offenders from committing any criminal act in the future.

Q32. What provisions are made under ‘the Schedule Castes and Schedule Tribes Act 1989’ for different types of humiliation?

Ans: The provisions made for the humiliation of Schedule Castes and Schedule Tribes under ‘the Schedule Caste and Schedule Tribe Act 1989’ mentions that the following physical and moral offences are punishable:
1. If a member of schedule or schedule tribe is called by ‘unwanted caste name’ by someone.

2. If a member of schedule caste or tribe is forced to eat uneatable or horrible substance.

3. If the clothes of the member of a Schedule Caste or Tribe are forcibly removed or painted his/her face or body and paraded by anyone.

Q33. What is the purpose of the Constitution?

Ans: The Constitution serves several purposes:-
a. It lays out certain ideals that form the basis of the kind of country that we as citizens aspire to live in.
b. It defines the nature of country’s political system.
c. It ensures that majority rule should not be dominant over minority rule and the dominant group should not use its power against less powerful people or group.

Q34. The Opposition parties play a critical role in the healthy functioning of a democracy.
1) What is the role of the Opposition parties in a democracy? (3 marks)
2) How does the ruling party benefit from the Opposition? (2 marks)

Ans: 1)Opposition in the Parliament is a coalition of all the parties that could not make a majority by votes. They stand opposite to the ruling party not in the essence of thoughts or ideologies but in the way a mirror shows what the ruling party lacks. The opposition’s job is to ask difficult questions and make a query about the happenings of the topics and decisions taken in the public domain to the cabinet or the ministry.
2) More often than not, ruling and opposition parties do not agree on the same points due to the inherent structure of their respective jobs. But ruling parties benefit a lot from the opposition if a healthy atmosphere is created where critiques and questions are churned into solutions for the greater good of the society. Thus, both elements are essential to the proper working of a democracy.