CBSE Sample Papers For Class 9 Science Mock Paper 1

CBSE Class 9 Science Sample Question Paper – 1 2021-2022

The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) is the exam-conducting body in India for the school level. It designs and issues the curriculum of various classes, the format of question papers and various other criteria related to school education. It prescribes NCERT books for Class 1 to Class 12 for different subjects. The National Council of Educational Research and Training publishes the books in an organised and hierarchical manner according to the level of students. Thus, students learn about various topics gradually and subtly.

As far as Class 9 is concerned, the syllabus of Science includes a variety of topics. These topics are chosen with precision and deal with real-life theories. Therefore, students should make efforts to comprehend each topic in detail. Extramarks CBSE Sample Papers For Class 9 Science Mock Paper 1 help a great deal to enlighten students on various topics and concepts. With CBSE Sample Papers For Class 9 Science Mock Paper 1, students of Class 9 can learn Science comfortably and comprehensively.

Science Mock Paper-1 for CBSE Class 9 Exams

To prepare for Class 9 holistically, students wander here and there in search of reliable study material. This is now possible with Extramarks. Extramarks offers well-structured materials for students to revise. For last-minute revision, CBSE Revision Notes provided by Extramarks are quite beneficial. With these notes, students can revise the important points covering the entire syllabus conveniently.

For inculcating further excellence in students, Extramarks provides CBSE Important Questions and CBSE Extra Questions as well. These extra-quality notes have been collected under these links with tremendous diligence and hard work. The experts at Extramarks go through CBSE Previous Year Question Papers to analyse what sort of questions are usually asked in the exam. Based on the recurring trends, all the important topics are gathered in one place. Not only this, Extramarks provides a lot of sample papers for practice purposes under the link CBSE Sample Papers For Class 9 Science Mock Paper 1. Students can solve these CBSE Sample Papers For Class 9 Science Mock Paper 1 to strengthen their preparation. These CBSE Sample Papers For Class 9 Science Mock Paper 1 help them cover the entire syllabus with firmness.

Class 9 Sample Question Paper Science – Free PDF Download

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CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 Science Syllabus

The value of understanding the curriculum, to qualify for any exam with excellent marks,  cannot be denied. Students of Class 9 looking for the CBSE Syllabus for Science can find the latest syllabus issued by the Central Board of Secondary Education on Extramarks.

Going through the syllabus before commencing preparation is helpful as students can skip the topics which have been deleted from the curriculum, and can, thus, save time. With this saved time, they can prepare for the exam in a more coherent and organised way. Also, the marking scheme of a particular subject can be found on the Extramarks website. The entire curriculum of  Class 9 Science has been divided into five units, covering Physics, Chemistry and Biology. The theory exam for Class 9 Science carries 80 marks. The sectional division of marks for Science is also given here. Chemistry and Physics carry an equal weightage of 27 marks each. Whereas 26 marks have been allocated to the Biology section. 20 marks have been reserved for internal assessment comprising practical experiments and viva voce, making the total of 100 marks. Students can improve their grip on topics of Science by solving mock tests available on Extramarks. Extramarks has released mock test 1 for Class 9 Science subject. Students can acquire the same by clicking on CBSE Sample Papers For Class 9 Science Mock Paper 1 via Extramarks. These CBSE Sample Papers For Class 9 Science Mock Paper 1 cover the entire syllabus as per the requirements of the final exam.

Conclusion

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Thus, Extramarks CBSE Sample Papers For Class 9 Science Mock Paper 1 should be accessed by students and be integrated into their revision schedule for concrete preparation.

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Q1. Which of the following does not have a neutron?

Opt:

Deuterium

Tritium

Protium

α- particle

Ans: Protium

Q2. Complete the following analogy:
9 grams H2O : 0.5 mol :: 20 grams CO2 : ________

Opt:

0.40 mol

0.45 mol

0.50 mol

0.55 mol

Ans: 0.45 mol

Q3. Aluminium ion is

Opt:

monovalent

divalent

trivalent

tetravalent

Ans: trivalent

Q4. The mass percentage of the solution obtained by dissolving 2.5 g of sugar in 47.5 g of water is

Opt:

2%

5%

8%

11%

Ans: 5%

Q5. Pick the one whose dispersed phase is a gas and dispersion medium is a liquid.

Opt:

Cheese

Shaving cream

Smoke

Rubber

Ans: Shaving cream

Q6. If we convert 110 °F into Celsius scale of temperature, we get

Opt:

43.3 °C

0 °C

150 °C

60.5 °C

Ans: 43.3 °C

Q7. The atomic mass of calcium is 40 u and its atomic number is 20. How many neutrons and protons are there in a calcium atom?

Opt:

20,40

20,20

40,20

40,40

Ans: 20,20

Q8. Observe the image of a plant component given below.


Which of the following options correctly describes the function of the given component?

Opt:

It helps in the vertical transport of water and minerals.

It provides support.

It stores food.

It helps in photosynthesis.

Ans: It helps in the vertical transport of water and minerals.

Q9. “Adipose tissue serves as an insulator”. Which of the following features of this tissue correctly justifies the statement?

Opt:

It has an extracellular matrix.

It accumulates proteins.

It is made up of collagen.

It stores fat.

Ans: It stores fat.

Q10. The images given below are of three different types of organisms. Which of the following options is correct?

Opt:

1 and 2 are unicellular organisms

2 and 3 are unicellular organisms

1 and 3 are unicellular organisms

Only 2 is a unicellular organism

Ans: 2 and 3 are unicellular organisms

Q11. A farmer sowed a wheat crop in his field. Along with the wheat crop, some unwanted plants were also grown in the field. Identify the unwanted plants from the given list.

1. Xanthium
2. Cyperinus
3. Parthenium
4. Bajra

Opt:

1, 2 and 3

Only 2 and 3

Only 3 and 4

Only 4 and 1

Ans: 1, 2 and 3

Q12. Aquatic plants, such as water hyacinth are buoyant due the presence of aerenchyma tissue in their bodies. Which of the following features of aerenchyma is responsible for this?

Opt:

Aerenchyma is tightly packed tissue with small intercellular spaces.

Aerenchyma tissue possesses large air cavities in between the cells.

The cells of aerenchyma have large vacuoles.

Aerenchyma tissue has air conducting tubes.

Ans: Aerenchyma tissue possesses large air cavities in between the cells.

Q13. A man travelled 2 km in the first hour, 8 km in the second hour and 3 km in the third hour. The man is moving with

Opt:

non-uniform speed, non-uniform acceleration

non-uniform speed, uniform acceleration

uniform speed, zero acceleration

uniform speed, uniform acceleration.

Ans: non-uniform speed, non-uniform acceleration

Q14. A bullet of mass ‘a’ and velocity ‘b’ is fired into a large block of wood of mass ‘c’. The final velocity of the system is

Opt:

ba+bb a+bca aba+c a+cab

Ans:

aba+c

Q15.

Identify the correct statement(s) among the following:
a. Gravitational force is a non-contact force.
b. Gravitational force is a scalar quantity.
c. It depends on the masses of the objects in consideration.

Opt:

Only c

a, b, and c

a and c

Only b

Ans: a and c

Q16. A person of weight 400 N takes 20 s to climb up a rope through a height of 8 m. The power of the person is

Opt:

120 W

140 W

160 W

1600 W

Ans: 160 W

Q17. Match the observations in column A with the associated characteristic property of matter in column B.

Column A Column B
a) There is no change in the volume of water when sugar is dissolved. i) Particles are in constant motion.
b) The fragrance of a perfume spreads throughout the entire room. ii) The particles of matter have spaces between them.
c) Force is required to break a piece of chalk. iii) Particles of matter are very small.
d) Even after dilution, the colour of potassium permanganate remains in the solution. iv) Particles of matter have forces of attraction.

Opt:

(a)-(i);(b)-(iii);(c)-(iv);(d)-(ii)

(a)-(ii);(b)-(i);(c)-(iv);(d)-(iii)

(a)-(ii);(b)-(iv);(c)-(iii);(d)-(i)

(a)-(i);(b)-(iv);(c)-(iii);(d)-(ii)

Ans:

(a)-(ii);(b)-(i);(c)-(iv);(d)-(iii)

Q18. Read the given statements carefully and select the correct option.
Assertion (A): Ligaments are elastic.
Reason (R): Ligaments are made up of collagen.

Opt:

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation for A.

Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation for A.

A is true, but R is false.

A is false, but R is true.

Ans: Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation for A.

Q19. Read the given statements carefully and select the correct option.
Assertion (A): The hard covering of seeds and nuts contain sclerenchyma.
Reason (R): Sclerenchyma possesses a highly lignified cell wall, which provides rigidity and hardness to the tissue.

Opt:

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation for A.

Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation for A.

A is true, but R is false.

A is false, but R is true.

Ans: Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation for A.

Q20. Assertion: Even though bats eat lots of moths, still they find it extremely difficult to prey on moths of certain species.
Reason: Certain moth species can hear ultrasonic sounds.

Opt:

Both the assertion and the reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Both the assertion and the reason are false, and the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

The assertion is false, but the reason is true.

The assertion is true, but the reason is false.

Ans: Both the assertion and the reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Q21. The image shown below comprises of a cylinder, a piston and a gas enclosed in it. The piston is movable.

Explain what happens when the piston is moved inwards.

OR

The atomic arrangements of three elements A, B, and C are shown in the image given below. Answer the questions that follow

(a) Identify the elements A, B, and C.

(b) Which of the elements has the highest valency?

Ans: When the piston is moved inwards, the intermolecular distance between the gas molecules decreases and the forces of attraction between the gas molecules increase. As a result, the particles start attracting each other and their motion gets restricted. Eventually, due to increased forces of attraction and decreased inter-particle distances, a gas gets liquified to form a liquid.

OR

(a) The elements A, B, and C have 6, 8, and 13 electrons in different shells. For a neutral atom, its atomic number is equal to the number of electrons. The atomic numbers of elements A, B, and C are 6, 8, and 13 respectively. Therefore, elements A, B, and C are carbon, oxygen, and aluminium respectively.

(b) The electronic configuration of the elements can be written as

A-2,4

B-2,6

C-2,8,3

Since valency is the number of electrons gained, lost, or shared by an atom to achieve stability, the valency of A is 4, the valency of B is 2 and the valency of C is 3. Element A has the highest valency.

Q22. Fill the missing words in the given table:

Crop Source
Carbohydrate
Pigeon Pea
Sesame
Turmeric

Ans:

Crop Source
Wheat/Rice Carbohydrate
Pigeon Pea Protein
Sesame Fat
Turmeric Vitamins/Minerals

Q23. Name the fluid connective tissue in humans. What are its various constituents?

Ans: Blood is the fluid connective tissue in humans. It has a fluid matrix called plasma that contains red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets suspended in it.

Q24. A pump lift 1200 kg of water every minute to a height of 10 m. Find the power of the pump.

Ans:

Given,Height, h = 10 mTime, t = 1 min = 60 sAcceleration due to gravity, g = 10 ms-2Power =mght = 1200 kg ×10 ms-2 ×10 m60 sPower = 2 kW

Q25. Consider the following real-life situations and answer the questions that follows:
a. The engine of a car exerts a force of magnitude 50000 N on it. The frictional force between the car and the surface of the road is 3000 N. Calculate the net force acting on the car.

b. Ramesh, Rahul, and Vikram are standing at an angle of 120° to each other. From their respective positions, they try to pull a rock by applying an equal force F, as shown in the given figure. Calculate the resultant force acting on the rock.

OR

When a person A standing on roller skates pushes another person B (also standing on roller skates) and makes him move to the right side, then the person A himself gets moved to the left side by an equal distance.

Why this happens? Can you explain this on the basis of any of Newton’s laws

Ans:

The net force on the car = 50000 − 3000 = 47000 N

Ramesh, Rahul, and Vikram are pulling the rock with an equal force, at equal angles from each other. Therefore, the forces acting on the rock are balanced. Since balanced forces do not cause motion, the rock will remain stationary.

OR

Yes, the above activity can be explained based on Newton’s third law of motion. It can be seen here that when A exerts a force on B then B also exerts an equal amount of force directed in a direction opposite to that of A.

Q26. Complete the table:

Ans:

Q27.

Density=MassVolume

Considering the above mathematical equation, answer the following questions:
a) How will the density of a 10g solid sample change when it changes to liquid and then to gas? Explain briefly.
b) Calculate the density of a 10mL sample of gas X having a mass of 20g.

Ans:

a) The mass of the sample is constant, whereas its volume changes as it converts from solid to liquid and then to the gaseous state. So, as the volume increases, the density keeps on decreasing.
b) Mass of gas X = 20g
Volume of gas X = 10mL

Density=MassVolumeDensity=20g10mL=2g/mL

 

Q28. What are the two types of pure substances ? Explain.

Ans: The two types of pure substances are- (1) Elements and (2) Compounds

1. Elements – They cannot be divided into simpler substance.

e.g. Hydrogen, Carbon etc. have only one kind of particles.

2. Compounds – They are made from same or different elements combined together in a definite ratio by mass. These elements are chemically bonded to form a compound.

e.g. In sodium chloride, one sodium atom and one chlorine atom combine to form NaCl.

Q29. What is the role of the epidermis in plants?

Ans:

1. The epidermis plays a protective role. It protects all the external parts of the plant against loss of water, mechanical injury and invasion by parasites etc.

2. Epidermal cells on the aerial parts of the plant often secrete a waxy layer that protects the plant surface from mechanical injury and water loss.

3. Root hair present on the epidermis of root help in the absorption of water and mineral from soil.

Q30. Rohan, a cyclist, travels along a circular track from C to D with a velocity of constant magnitude of 13.5 m/s. The circumference of this circular track is 350 m and CD is one of its diameters.

Calculate:
(i) distance moved by the cyclist.
(ii) average velocity of the cyclist.
(iii) the acceleration of the cyclist.

Ans:

Circumference = 350 m

Radius = Circumference2π= 350 m2π= 55. 73 m

 
(i) Distance moved by the cyclist is equal to the arc CD.

Distance along the arc CD = 350 m2 = 175 m

(ii) The cyclist is moving along a circular track with a velocity of constant magnitude (speed). So, the change in the velocity is due to the change in the direction of the cyclist. Hence, the average magnitude of the velocity of the cyclist is 13.5 m/s.

(iii) Acceleration of a body having uniform circular motion = v2r

Hence, the acceleration of the cyclist,

a = 13.5 ms1255.73 m    = 3.27 ms2

This acceleration is also known as centripetal acceleration.

Q31. The brakes applied to a car produced an acceleration of 6 ms-2 in the opposite direction of the motion. If the car takes 2 s to stop after the application of brakes, calculate the distance it travels during this time.

Ans:

Here, decelaration(a) = 6 ms-2
Time (t) = 2 s; Final velocity of the car (v) = 0 m/s
Let ‘u ‘ be the initial velocity of the car & ‘ s’ be the covered distance by the car, before come to rest
Applying, 1st equation of kinematics,
v = u – at
or,            u = v + at
or,               = 0 ms-1 + (6 ms-2) x (2 s)
= 12 ms-1 

Applying, 2nd equation of kinematics,
s= ut – 1/2 at2
= [(12 x 2) – 1/2(6) (2)2]m
= 12 m
Thus, the car will cover 12 m before come to rest.

Q32. Give reasons for the following.

1. A plastic block released underwater never stays underwater but comes to the surface of the water.
2. Sleepers are laid below the rails.

Ans:

1. The density of a plastic block is less than that of the water. Thus, the buoyant force acting on the block is greater than its weight. So, the block comes to the surface of the water due to the net upward force acting on it.

2. Sleepers are laid below the rails to increase the area of the rails. This increase in the area results in a decrease in pressure. This prevents the rails from sinking into the ground due to the weight of the trains that move over them.

Q33. Enlist some traits which poultry farmers desire in their layers or broilers.

Ans: Poultry farmers desire the following traits in poultry which they achieve through crossbreeding:

  • Low requirement of maintenance
  • Number of chicks produced
  • Quality of chicks produced
  • Number of eggs laid
  • Tolerance for high temperature or high capacity of summer adaptation
  • Dwarf broiler parents to produce chicks for commercial purpose
  • Reduced size of layers with the ability to consume a cheaper fibrous diet; these diets mainly produced through agricultural by-products

Q34. An atom of phosphorous can be represented as

1531P {}_{15}{}^{31}\mathrm{P}

1531P ,
(i)   What does the figure 31 indicates?
(ii) What does the figure 15 indicates?
(iii)  What is the number of protons in an atom of phosphorous?
(iv)  What is the number of electrons in an atom of phosphorous?
(v) What is the number of neutrons in an atom of phosphorous?

OR

The number of subatomic particles for some elements are given below:

(a) 8p+, 8n, 8e
(b) 17p+, 20n, 17e
(c) 13p+, 14n, 13e
(d) 12p+, 12n, 12e
(e) 7p+, 7n, 7e

Write the atomic numbers and the symbols of the elements that each set of subatomic particles is representing.

Ans:

(i)  The figure 31 indicates the mass number of phosphorous.
(ii)  The figure 15 indicates the atomic number of phosphorous.
(iii)  The number of proton is equal to the atomic number, thus phosphorous has 15 protons.
(iv) In an atom, the number of proton is equal to the number of electrons, thus phosphorous has 15 electrons.
(v)  Mass number = Number of protons + Number of neutrons
31 = 15+ number of neutrons
∴  Number of neutrons = 31-15  ⇒ 16

OR

(a) Atomic number = No of protons = 8
Therefore, the element is Oxygen (O).

(b) Atomic number = No of protons = 17
Therefore, the element is Chlorine (Cl).

(c) Atomic number = No of protons = 13
Therefore, the element is Aluminum (Al).

(d) Atomic number = No of protons = 12
Therefore, the element is Magnesium (Mg).

(e) Atomic number = No of protons = 7
Therefore, the element is Nitrogen (N).

Q35. a) Draw a diagram of a prokaryotic cell and label the given parts:
i) cell wall ii) nucleoid iii) ribosomes
b) Complete the given table illustrating the differences between the prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.

Prokaryotic cell Eukaryotic cell
Size of the cell is small Size of the cell is large
Presence of single chromosome
Membrane bounded organelles present

Ans:

a)

b)

Prokaryotic cell    Eukaryotic cell
Size of the cell is small Size of the cell is large
Presence of single chromosome More than one chromosome
Absence of membrane-bounded organelles Membrane bounded organelles present

Q36. Rahul was standing on a 245 m high tower with a stopwatch. He dropped a stone from the tower and noted that the time it taken by the stone to reach the ground was 6 s.

(i) What was the time taken by the stone to reach the ground correct?
(ii) What was its velocity when it touched the ground?
(iii) Make a table showing the distance, velocity and acceleration at the end of each second of the journey of the stone.
(iv) Plot distance-time, velocity-time, and acceleration-time graphs.

Ans: Since, height of the tower, h = 245 m Initial velocity of the particle, u = 0m/s
(i) Time taken by the stone to reach the ground, t = ?

(iii)  By using the above given equations of motion, we draw the following table.

Time, t s v a(=g)
0 s 0 m 0 m/s
1 s 5 m 10 m/s 10 ms-2
2 s 20 m 20 m/s 10 ms-2
3 s 45 m 30 m/s 10 ms-2
4 s 80 m 40 m/s 10 ms-2
5 s 125 m 50 m/s 10 ms-2
6 s 180 m 60 m/s 10 ms-2
7 s 245 m 70 m/s 10 ms-2

(iv)  The distance-time graph, velocity-time graph and acceleration-time graph for the above table are given below:

 

Q37. What are the main postulates of Dalton’s atomic theory?

OR

Write the charge on sodium, zinc, carbonate and nitride ions. A metal has a valency of three. Write the formula of its chloride, hydroxide, sulphide, and phosphate. Explain the formation of these compounds.

Ans: The following are the postulates of Dalton’s theory:

a) All matter is composed of extremely small particles known as atoms.

b) Atoms are indivisible particles that cannot be created or destroyed during a chemical reaction.

c) Atoms of the same element have the same mass and chemical properties.

d) The masses and chemical properties of atoms of different elements are different. e) Atoms combine in small whole number ratios to form compounds. In a given compound, the relative number and type of atoms remain constant.

OR

The charge on sodium, zinc, carbonate and nitride ions is +1, +2, -1 and -3 respectively. The metal has a valency of
3. This means that its charge on its ion would be +3. 1. Chloride ion has a charge of –

1. The valency of positive and negative ions must be balanced in a compound. As a result, there are three chloride ions for every metal ion. Therefore, MCl3 is the chemical formula for metal chloride.

2. Sulphide ion has a charge of -2 and the metal ion has a charge of +3. Since the charges need to be balanced, three sulphide ion is attached to two metal ions. M2S3 is the chemical formula for metal sulphide.

3. Phosphate ion has a charge of -3. Because the metal ion has a charge of +3, one phosphate ion is required for one metal ion. As a result, the chemical formula for calcium phosphate is MPO4.

Q38. Read the given case and answer the following questions:

Case – Natasha placed a visking tubing (an artificial partially permeable membrane) over a glass of water and poured a solution of glucose and starch into the glass. After a few hours, she observed that the glucose got dissolved in water, whereas the starch did not.

i.      What is a partially permeable membrane?
ii.     Why did glucose and starch behave differently?
iii.    Name the partially permeable membrane present in our body.

                                                         or

iii. What is likely to happen if the outer covering of an animal cell is disrupted? 

Ans:

i.     The membrane that allows only small particles/molecules to pass through it is known as a partially permeable membrane.
ii.    Glucose diffused through the membrane because its molecules are small enough to pass through the membrane. On the other hand, starch consists of large molecules that cannot pass through the membrane.
iii.   The cell membrane acts as a partially permeable membrane in our body.

                                                          or

iii. the outer covering of animal cell i.e. cell membrane separates the internal contents of cell from the external environment. Disruption of this membrane will lead to leakage of cell contents into the external environment. 

Q39. Sunny threw a ball while standing on the jumping board of a swimming pool, which is at a height of 45 m. After one second, he threw another ball from the same board with initial velocity u. Both the balls hit the water together.
        

 

(i) Find the initial velocity with which the second ball was thrown.
(ii) Do the two balls hit the water with the same velocity? Explain.

Ans:

(i) For the first ball, initial velocity, u = 0 m/s;
distance covered, s = 45 m, acceleration, a = g = 10 m/s2

Thus, the first ball takes 3s to reach the water surface.
For the second ball, initial velocity, u=?;
distance covered, s = 45 m, time taken, t =(3 s – 1 s) = 2 s

(ii) Velocities of the two balls when they hit the water:
If v1 is the velocity of the first ball,
v1 = u + at = u + gt
= 0 + 10 m/s2 x 3s
= 30 m/s

If v2 is the velocity of the second ball,
v2 = 12.5m/s + 10 m/s2 x 2 s
= 32.5 m/s
Thus, the two balls hit the water surface with different velocities. The second ball hits the water with a higher velocity.

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FAQs (Frequently Asked Questions)

1. What type of questions are asked in the Science exam of Class 9?

The Central Board of Secondary Education keeps on changing and revising the pattern of exams to upgrade the abilities of students. As per the latest guidelines, the Class 9 Science exam includes multiple choice questions, assertion reason-based questions, case studies, numerical and short and long answer type questions, analysing students’ cognitive and analytical abilities. Extramarks CBSE Sample Papers For Class 9 Science Mock Paper 1 follow the same pattern to give students a real-time exam experience.

2. Are CBSE Sample Papers For Class 9 Science Mock Paper 1 on Extramarks available in PDF format?

Yes, Extramarks provides CBSE Sample Papers For Class 9 Science Mock Paper 1 in a PDF file format for downloading purposes. Students can avail of the PDF of CBSE Sample Papers For Class 9 Science Mock Paper 1 in offline mode via the Extramarks website.